In standard form \(y^{\prime }-p\left ( x\right ) y=q\left ( x\right ) \). So \(p=\frac {-1}{x},q=0\). Hence the domain of \(p\) is all \(x\) except \(x=0\). Domain of \(q\) is all \(x\). Since the IC includes \(x=0\) then no guarantee solution exists or be unique. Theory does not say anything. We have to try to solve the ode to find out. Solving gives