\(y=x+\left ( y^{\prime }\right ) ^{2}\) is put in normal form (by replacing \(y^{\prime }\) with \(p\)) which gives
Hence \(f\left ( p\right ) =1,g\left ( p\right ) =p^{2}\). Since \(f\left ( p\right ) \neq p\) then this is d’Almbert ode. Taking derivative w.r.t. \(x\) gives
Using \(f=1,g=p^{2}\) the above simplifies to
The singular solution is found by setting \(\frac {dp}{dx}=0\) in (2) which results in \(p-f=0\) or \(p-1=0\). Hence \(p=1\). Substituting these values of \(p\) in (1) gives singular solution as
General solution is found when \(\frac {dp}{dx}\neq 0\,\). Eq (2A) is a first order ode in \(p\). Now we could either solve ode (2) directly as it is for \(p\left ( x\right ) \), or do an inversion and solve for \(x\left ( p\right ) \). Since (2) is separable as is, no need to do an inversion. Solving (2) for \(p\) gives
Substituting this in (1) gives the general solution
Note however that when \(c_{1}=0\) then the general solution becomes \(y\left ( x\right ) =x+1\). Hence (3) is a particular solution and not a singular solution. (4) is the only solution.